A 65-year-old male patient of mine with a past medical history of transient ischaemic attacks recently developed epigastric pain. He has been on soluble aspirin and endoscopy which confirmed a small peptic ulcer. How should 1 manage this patient? Comments: This patient presents with two separate problems which pose potential threats: transient ischaemic attack(s), and uncomplicated peptic ulcer disease, linked by association with aspirin therapy.